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Date:      Wed, 12 Apr 2000 11:21:03 +0530
From:      Rahul Siddharthan <rsidd@physics.iisc.ernet.in>
To:        Mark Ovens <mark@dogma.freebsd-uk.eu.org>
Cc:        Brad Knowles <blk@skynet.be>, freebsd-chat@FreeBSD.ORG
Subject:   Re: BSDCon East
Message-ID:  <20000412112102.B1588@theory5.physics.iisc.ernet.in>
In-Reply-To: <20000411222112.B235@parish>; from mark@dogma.freebsd-uk.eu.org on Tue, Apr 11, 2000 at 10:21:13PM %2B0100
References:  <38F11BBA.0137@funbox.demon.co.uk> <v04220805b5174e9bbae6@[195.238.21.91]> <20000411222112.B235@parish>

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> I would have to say that *the* canonical reference to the English
> language is the OED and that Webster is probably the American
> equivalent.

Yes, but the OED doesn't necessarily represent existing usage
accurately. It contains a lot of editorialising and attempts
to shape the future of the language. 

My favourite example is "Shakspere" -- they admit that the
more common spelling is "perh. Shakespeare".  This is the
first edition, I haven't checked what the newer edition says.

> My favourite spelling difference is where the English (for the most
> part) actually get it wrong. Words ending ~ize are almost always
> spelled ~ise here (in books, newspapers etc) yet the OED shows ~ize to
> be correct, and it is only in recent versions of the OED that ~ise
> appears as an *alternative*.

No, the first edition lists -ise as a frequent alternative. I think
this is also an example of trying to influence future usage rather
than representing current usage faithfully. I've never seen -ize
in English books older than the mid-20th century: it's always -ise
(in analogy with -ism and -ist).


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