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Date:      Sat, 05 Jan 2002 14:47:32 -0500
From:      dochawk@psu.edu
To:        freebsd-questions@FreeBSD.ORG
Subject:   Re: The BSD daemon 
Message-ID:  <200201051947.g05JlX602925@fac13.ds.psu.edu>
In-Reply-To: Your message of "Fri, 04 Jan 2002 16:23:53 %2B0100." <200201041523.g04FNr478167@lurza.secnetix.de> 

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Oliver orated,


> And by the way, it isn't "his".  According to Kirk, it
> is neither male nor female.  I don't know why people keep
> thinking it's a male.  There's nothing that supports that
> assumption.  ;-)

But in English, "his" does not denote gender, unless indicated =

otherwise by context (whereas "her" always indicates gender).  =

He/his/him are used for unknown gender.  The only other possibility is =

it/it's/it in the *absence* of gender. =


So is being neither the same as being devoid of gender (which would =

mean "it"), or is it some status of gener (meaning "he" is correct)?

hawk
-- =

What part of "non-negotiable" didn't you understand? /"\   ASCII ribbon c=
ampaign
dochawk@psu.edu  Smeal 178  (814) 375-4700           \ /   against HTML m=
ail
These opinions will not be those of                   X    and postings. =

Penn State until it pays my retainer.                / \   =




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