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Date:      Sun, 21 Oct 2001 06:26:32 -0300
From:      Fernando Gont <fernando@gont.com.ar>
To:        Mike Silbersack <silby@silby.com>
Cc:        freebsd-net@freebsd.org
Subject:   Re: SYN flood and IP spoofing
Message-ID:  <4.3.2.7.2.20011021061340.00d8bc80@mail.sitanium.com>
In-Reply-To: <20011020140704.R63640-100000@achilles.silby.com>
References:  <4.3.2.7.2.20011020101858.00d984e0@mail.sitanium.com>

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At 14:17 20/10/2001 -0500, Mike Silbersack wrote:

> > I've read some explanations about the SYN flood DoS attack.
> > I understand that when the attacker fills the listening queue of the
> > attacked host with incomplete connections, the attacked host will not
> > reply to any SYN it receives after that.
>That's an old explanation; basically any OS released in the last few years
>will throw old/random connections out of the queue when it fills up.

Anyway, I wonder how the old implementations behaved, and why they behaved 
like that.



>What you actually describe here is more "spoofing" than a syn flood; a
>syn flood just involves blasting large numbers of syn packets at someone,
>with no intent of actually spoofing a connection.
>When Mitnick / anyone else did spoofing, it was through weaknesses in the
>algorithm used to generate initial sequence numbers, not through simple
>brute force.

The attack was a trust relationship exploit, that means, one host trusted 
the other by its IP address.

For exploiting that trust relationship, Mitnick spoofed the trusted-host IP 
address.
But he had to silence the trusted host in some way, and that's why he 
SYN-flooded it.

My point is that he shouldn't have been able to silence the host in that way.
I don't see any reason for the old TCP/IP stacks droping a SYN/ACK segment 
they received just because the listening queue was full.

Under normal conditions (i.e., listening queue NOT full), they replied the 
SYN/ACK with an RST (as they had never sent a SYN).

So why should this behavior change when the listening queue is full?




>(I'm assuming that's how Mitnick did it; I'm not aware that
>he has revealed exactly how he did anything,

He didn't do it. It was the owner of the attacked host that revealed it, in 
a post to comp.security.misc.



>and I doubt I'd trust him even if he did explain.)

Why?



> > However, I don't understand why it will not even reply with an RST
> > when it receives a SYN-ACK from other machine.
>In the general case of spoofing, you could ensure that a syn-ack does not
>elicit a rst by spoofing the IP of a nonexistant host.

But in the case I'm talking about, the host did exist.



>I've also read that older tcp stacks could be caused to stop emitting 
>packets by filling their SYN queue; I'm not sure when that stopped applying.

Well, that's the point of my question: is there any reason for the stacks 
to behave like that?

Kind regards,
Fernando Gont
e-mail: fernando@gont.com.ar


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