From owner-freebsd-questions  Wed Jul 12 15:50:40 2000
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From: "Alejandro Ramirez" <ales@megared.net.mx>
To: "Raymundo M. Vega" <RaymundoVega@home.com>,
	"Stephen Hovey" <shovey@buffnet.net>,
	"Rahul Siddharthan" <rsidd@physics.iisc.ernet.in>,
	"Jan Grant" <Jan.Grant@bristol.ac.uk>,
	"Theo Bell" <freebsd@cfdnet.me.tuns.ca>
Cc: <freebsd-questions@FreeBSD.ORG>
References: <Pine.BSF.4.05.10007121119120.723-100000@buffnet11.buffnet.net> <396CCC00.1320965@home.com>
Subject: Re: IP Address Convertion Formula???
Date: Wed, 12 Jul 2000 17:47:21 -0500
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> >
> > Oh I think easy is always proper! :)
> >
>
> unless you *really* want to know how it is done

That is exacly what I wanted to know, basically its very simple:

Quote from Andresen,Jason R. <jandrese@mitre.org>
Both of them represent 32 bits.  Your first form simply leaves all of the
bits together to form a single 32 bit number, the second form breaks the
bits up into four 8 bit numbers.

Example:
10.10.35.158
= 00001010.00001010.00100011.10011110
= 00001010000010100010001110011110
= 168436638 = 10.10.35.158

It is a "feature" of the BSD-derived inet_aton() function. Originally, the
function was supposed to convert the shorthand "12.1" into the
corresponding 32-bit IPv4 binary address for 12.0.0.1. It also converts
things w/o dot like "121" into 0.0.0.121. That way, it also converts the
what I call big-int addresses like "168436638 " into 10.10.35.158. As
digit strings are always network byteorder, the conversion is not affected
by endianess issues.

Thanks to all who helped me with this...
Sincerely
Ales





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