Skip site navigation (1)Skip section navigation (2)
Date:      Mon, 25 Mar 96 14:33:47 MET
From:      Greg Lehey <lehey.pad@sni.de>
To:        narvi@haldjas.folklore.ee (Narvi)
Cc:        lehey.pad@sni.de, joerg_wunsch@uriah.heep.sax.de, freebsd-chat@freebsd.org, asami@cs.berkeley.edu
Subject:   Re: cvs commit: ports/editors/bpatch/pkg COMMENT
Message-ID:  <199603251336.OAA11551@nixpbe.pdb.sni.de>
In-Reply-To: <Pine.BSF.3.91.960325152938.24377B-100000@haldjas.folklore.ee>; from "Narvi" at Mar 25, 96 3:35 pm

next in thread | previous in thread | raw e-mail | index | archive | help
> On Mon, 25 Mar 1996, Greg Lehey wrote:
>
>>> As Narvi wrote:
>>>
>>>> And there really aren't that many
>>>> special cases (I haven't yet found out how you make sure from which
>>>> gender a given word is other than learning by heart). Perhaps you should
>>>> consider hard languages in which there are 14 or more cases.
>>>
>>> Well, languages with many different grammatical cases usually replace
>>> prepositions by cases.
>>
>> In fact, within the Indo-European languages, it's the other way round:
>> older languages, such as Latin and Greek, use endings to indicate
>> case, person, number and tense.  Newer languages, such as English,
>> replace them with prepositions.
>
> Newer? Older? In real old Sanskrit and friends it wasn't so. 

I thought Sanskrit made significant use of inflections.  That doesn't
stop it from having prepositions as well, of course--I specifically
referred to "case, person, number and tense.

> But that isn't the thing that makes the grammars
> similar/different. It's not easier for me to learn Latin or Greek
> than any modern language as the "similarity might suggest.

Why should it be?  I wouldn't see much in the way of similarity.

>>> This is actually not much harder to learn than learning the correct
>>> usage of the prepositions.  (I don't know about Hungarian that
>>> doesn't have prepositions, but i know it from Slavic languages.)
>
> How comes the slavic languages don't have prepositions? At least in
> Russian there are.

I'm not sure I understand this.  Of course the slavic languages have
prepositions.  But Russian, like German, has a more inflected syntax
than, say, English or French.  I think that this is what the original
poster (name lost) meant.

Greg



Want to link to this message? Use this URL: <https://mail-archive.FreeBSD.org/cgi/mid.cgi?199603251336.OAA11551>