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Date:      Mon, 1 Feb 1999 10:16:21 +1030
From:      Greg Lehey <grog@lemis.com>
To:        Chris Browning <brownicm@prokyon.com>
Cc:        FreeBSD Chat <chat@FreeBSD.ORG>, Mikhail Teterin <mi@kot.ne.mediaone.net>, Poul-Henning Kamp <phk@critter.freebsd.dk>, Sheldon Hearn <axl@iafrica.com>, "Daniel C. Sobral" <dcs@newsguy.com>, Mark Ovens <marko@uk.radan.com>
Subject:   Re: English style (was: btokup().. patch to STYLE(9) (fwd))
Message-ID:  <19990201101621.Z8473@freebie.lemis.com>
In-Reply-To: <XFMail.990131102312.brownicm@prokyon.com>; from Chris Browning on Sun, Jan 31, 1999 at 10:23:12AM -0500
References:  <19990130144416.Q8473@freebie.lemis.com> <XFMail.990131102312.brownicm@prokyon.com>

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On Sunday, 31 January 1999 at 10:23:12 -0500, Chris Browning wrote:
> On 30-Jan-99 Greg Lehey wrote:
>> On Saturday, 30 January 1999 at  4:07:10 +0000, Mark Ovens wrote:
>>> American-English and Australian-English are both derivatives of
>>> English (I object to the term "British-English"). If Americans have
>>> considered the split infinitive grammatically correct for many years
>>> then that is up to them, but in _English_ it has only recently
>>> become accepted as grammatically correct.
>>
>> What I quoted indicates that the situation is similar in the USA.  The
>> thirteenth edition was published in 1982, the fourteenth in 1993.
>
> FWIW, the proscription against the split infinitive, if I recall correctly, was
> introduced sometime in the 19th century. "Scholars" who noted that it was
> disallowed in Latin felt that English would be improved thereby.

Disallowed in Latin?  How could it be possible in Latin (or most other
European languages, for that matter)?

Greg
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