Date: Sun, 24 Apr 2011 20:50:53 -0400 From: David Scheidt <dscheidt@panix.com> To: Lionel Fourquaux <lionel.fourquaux+freebsd-questions@normalesup.org> Cc: FreeBSD Mailing List <freebsd-questions@freebsd.org> Subject: Re: routing to a directly attached subnet without an address in this subnet Message-ID: <9DC435EF-B1BA-405D-9023-9724F65E77E3@panix.com> In-Reply-To: <20110424202954.GA16373@phare.normalesup.org> References: <20110424202954.GA16373@phare.normalesup.org>
next in thread | previous in thread | raw e-mail | index | archive | help
On Apr 24, 2011, at 4:29 PM, Lionel Fourquaux wrote: > Dear FreeBSD users, >=20 > Consider an IPv6 router with two interfaces, e.g. em0 and em1. > em0 has addresses fe80::1234:56ff:fe78:9abc and 2001:db8::1 > em1 has address fe80::1234:56ff:fe78:9abd > Network 2001:db8::/64 is directly attached to em0, and network = 2001:db8:0:1::/64 is directly attached to em1. The default route points = to em0. I would like to route packets addressed to 2001:db8:0:1::/64 to = interface em1, without allocating an address in 2001:db8:0:1::/64 for = em1. (Or to understand why this would be impossible). >=20 Why do you want to do this? How do you expect the hosts on the attached = networks to get packets to you? =20
Want to link to this message? Use this URL: <https://mail-archive.FreeBSD.org/cgi/mid.cgi?9DC435EF-B1BA-405D-9023-9724F65E77E3>