Date: Sun, 24 Apr 2011 20:50:53 -0400 From: David Scheidt <dscheidt@panix.com> To: Lionel Fourquaux <lionel.fourquaux+freebsd-questions@normalesup.org> Cc: FreeBSD Mailing List <freebsd-questions@freebsd.org> Subject: Re: routing to a directly attached subnet without an address in this subnet Message-ID: <9DC435EF-B1BA-405D-9023-9724F65E77E3@panix.com> In-Reply-To: <20110424202954.GA16373@phare.normalesup.org> References: <20110424202954.GA16373@phare.normalesup.org>
index | next in thread | previous in thread | raw e-mail
On Apr 24, 2011, at 4:29 PM, Lionel Fourquaux wrote: > Dear FreeBSD users, > > Consider an IPv6 router with two interfaces, e.g. em0 and em1. > em0 has addresses fe80::1234:56ff:fe78:9abc and 2001:db8::1 > em1 has address fe80::1234:56ff:fe78:9abd > Network 2001:db8::/64 is directly attached to em0, and network 2001:db8:0:1::/64 is directly attached to em1. The default route points to em0. I would like to route packets addressed to 2001:db8:0:1::/64 to interface em1, without allocating an address in 2001:db8:0:1::/64 for em1. (Or to understand why this would be impossible). > Why do you want to do this? How do you expect the hosts on the attached networks to get packets to you?help
Want to link to this message? Use this URL: <https://mail-archive.FreeBSD.org/cgi/mid.cgi?9DC435EF-B1BA-405D-9023-9724F65E77E3>